Detroit Pistons wing Luke Kennard is expected to remain out of action for at least the next two weeks due to bilateral knee tendinitis. The team announced on Friday that the third-year Duke product will be re-evaluated on Jan. 7. Kennard injured his knee during last Saturday’s 119-107 loss to the Chicago Bulls.
Medical update: Pistons guard Luke Kennard will miss the next two weeks with bilateral knee tendinitis. Kennard will begin a treatment regimen and be re-evaluated for a return to action on January 7.
— Detroit Pistons (@DetroitPistons) December 26, 2019
There was some optimism for Detroit heading into this season with a solid cast of role players around their powerful frontcourt duo of Blake Griffin and Andre Drummond but they have yet to live up to expectations. With a record of 12-21 through their first 33 outings, the Pistons are currently ranked 11th out East and well outside the playoff picture.
There’s still plenty of time for Detroit to turn it around, but the latest injury to their starting two-guard won’t make things easy. Kennard has been developing nicely over his first few seasons in the NBA after a standout two-year career at Duke.
On the season, Kennard is averaging 15.8 points per game while also chipping in 4.1 assists and 3.5 rebounds. The 23-year-old sharpshooter has proven to be a serviceable complement to Griffin and Drummond, but staying healthy has been a challenge. Kennard missed nearly 20 games last season and is expected to miss at least a handful now as he recovers from his knee tendinitis.
With Kennard sidelined for at least the next couple of weeks, expect guards Langston Galloway and Derrick Rose to be even more involved off the bench while veteran forward Tony Snell could see a slight uptick in minutes as well. Detroit heads to Utah on Monday for the second matchup in their six-game road trip.